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[Raphaël Maurin <question239900@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>]

Question #239900 on Yade changed:
https://answers.launchpad.net/yade/+question/239900

    Status: Answered => Open

Raphaël Maurin is still having a problem:
I tried and it is not possible to obtain an equivalent viscosity in the case you are describing [1], except for a contact between two spheres that have the same material parameters (k,c). If the two spheres have the same parameters, the equivalent viscosity is cn = cn1cn2/(cn1+cn2) = c/2. 
More genrally, this formulation is a good approximation if k2*delta_2 - k1*delta_1 negligible wrt the other force terms and delta_1 ~ delta_2

I understand the damping should not be zero if one particle of the two
is purely elastic, however the actual formulation gives an arbitrary
value (cn =c), which is higher than if we have contact between two
particles with the same damping (cn = c/2). And this does not seems
appropriate. So I am not sure which formulation is the most appropriate
and if it is good to let it like that.


 [1] http://www.sccs.swarthmore.edu/users/06/dluong1/e12/Lab4/diagrams/models.gif model B with Mt=0.

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